Question 21 definition

Question 21. What if I did not get a letter? Does that mean I am not included in the buy-out? Answer 21: If your property is within the program’s designated project area and you did not receive a letter, you may still apply to the program. If you are outside the designated area, you do not qualify for the program. Question 22: What is the difference between an appraisal and an assessment? Answer 22: An Appraiser is a person who is specifically trained to offer an unbiased value of real property. An Appraisal is an opinion of the value of property, as of a specific date, supported by objective data. This is how the value of your property/home will be determined in our program. An Assessor is an elected or appointed local official who independently estimates the value of real property. The Assessed Value is the value placed on property to which a local tax rate is applied to calculate the amount of real property tax. Your Assessment is a percentage of a property’s market value. They are two very separate values. Question 23: Where do I find the Application / NEST Number?
Sample 1Sample 2Sample 3
Question 21. In the TOR PWS Attachment 1, Task 1 asks the contractor to develop a HBCU/MI Student Internship program. In the final solicitation document, Section C.1.3.4 lists HBCU/MI Student Internship as a current CCDC- ARL outreach program initiative. Is the HBCU/MI Student Internship program an existing program initiative that we will need to continue? Or will we be responsible for developing a new HBCU/MI Internship program?
Sample 1Sample 2
Question 21. Many new residential homes are constructed with pull down stair access to the attics, often referred to as "disappearing attic stairways." For attics that use this type of stair access, would OSHA consider the attics to be confined spaces?
Sample 1

Examples of Question 21 in a sentence

  • Question 21 [last update 27 June 2014]: The technical guidance indicates for each information item whether the information is mandatory (M), optional (O) or conditional (C).

  • CCP Question 21 [last update 21 May 2014] Guideline and Recommendation 3(b)(v) – Prudential Requirements Pursuant to Guideline and Recommendation 3(b)(v) of the ESMA Guidelines and Recommendations for establishing consistent, efficient and effective assessments of interoperability arrangements, interoperable CCPs are not allowed to contribute to each other’s default funds or other financial resources (as such are defined in Article 43 of EMIR).

  • Provide contact information for all housemates listed in Question 21 with whom you have resided during the past 10 years, or since the age of 15.

  • TR Question 21 [Last update: 29 May 2018] Article 9 of EMIR – Reporting to TRs: UPI taxonomy The approach to the reporting of product taxonomy was clarified in the Annex to the Commission Delegated Regulation No 148/2013 .

  • Question 2.1 Picklist • Data is currently openly shared to the public.

  • Taking into account the analysis in Section 1, describe the local board’s strategy to work with the organizations that carry out core programs to align resources in the local area, in support of the vision and goals described in Question 2.1. See Local Plan References and Resources.

  • Question 21 also asks all Applicants to indicate both the minimum anticipated amount of QLICIs that will be deployed in Non-Metropolitan Counties, and the maximum amount of QLICIs that they are willing to commit to deploy in Non-Metropolitan Counties.

  • As a result, claims relating to consignment activities are reflected on Schedule F as $0 disputed claims, and the related goods are not listed as property held for another on Question 21 of the Statements.

  • The CDFI Fund determines whether an Applicant qualifies as a Rural CDE based on the information contained in Exhibit B and in Question 21 of the Allocation Application.

  • Is the EU endorsement process appropriate to ensure that IFRS do not pose an obstacle to broader EU policy objectives such as sustainability and long-term investments?Yes NoDon’t know / no opinion / not relevant Question 21.


More Definitions of Question 21

Question 21. Any other comments you wish to make, relevant to your use of traps against the species concerned.
Sample 1
Question 21. Are there any safeguard mechanisms to protect the Indian domestic industry from surge in imports from Australia? Answer: Yes. • There is a bilateral safeguard mechanism built into this agreement. India can enhance the rate of duty to MFN level on goods in respect of which there has been surge in imports from Australia due to reduction or elimination of duty. This mechanism would be available for use for the transition period i.e. a period of fourteen years from the date of tariff elimination or completion of tariff reduction. For example, if tariff elimination period for a particular product is 10 years, then bilateral safeguard for that product can be imposed up to 24 years from the date of entry into force of the agreement. • Australia has not granted transition period of more than 8 years in any of its FTAs signed so far. This is the first time Australia has agreed for transition period of 14 years for application of bilateral safeguard mechanism.
Sample 1
Question 21. What are the threats (up to 3) that PALANTIR must consider? Possible responses: Unauthorised Access (attacker or employee error), Misuse of Information by Authorised Users, Data Leakage, Data Loss, Service Disruption. Threats Yes (should be considered) No Unauthorised Access 21 3 Data Leakage 19 5 Service Disruption 14 10 Data Loss 9 15 Misuse of Information 5 19 Question 22: Are there financial or legal penalties associated with those threats? Possible responses: Financial, Legal, Both, No • Unauthorised Access (attacker or employee error) • Misuse of Information by Authorised Users • Data Leakage • Data Loss • Service Disruption Threats Both Financial Legal No Service Disruption Due to a technical error, this question did not appear in the survey. Misuse of Information 16 2 4 1 Question 23: Would there likely be a revenue or profitability impact associated with those threats? Possible responses: No, Unlikely, Likely, Very Likely. • Unauthorised Access (attacker or employee error) • Misuse of Information by Authorised Users • Data Leakage • Data Loss • Service Disruption Threats No Unlikely Likely Very Likely Unauthorised Access 0 3 10 10 Data Leakage 0 3 7 13 Service Disruption 0 4 14 5 Document name: Deliverable 2.3. Requirements & High-Level Design – Final Page: 79 of 91 Reference: 1.0 Dissemination: PU Version: 1.0 Status: Final Threats No Unlikely Likely Very Likely Data Loss 0 3 9 11 Misuse of Information 0 7 8 8 Question 24: Would there likely be an impact to the day-to-day business operations associated with those threats? Possible responses: No, Unlikely, Likely, Very Likely. • Unauthorised Access (attacker or employee error) • Misuse of Information by Authorised Users • Data Leakage • Data Loss • Service Disruption Threats No Unlikely Likely Very Likely Unauthorised Access 0 9 9 4 Data Leakage 0 14 4 4 Service Disruption 0 2 2 18 Data Loss 0 2 7 13 Misuse of Information 0 14 7 1 Question 25: Would there likely be a reputational or brand impact associated with those threats? Possible responses: No, Unlikely, Likely, Very Likely. • Unauthorised Access (attacker or employee error) • Misuse of Information by Authorised Users • Data Leakage • Data Loss • Service Disruption Threats No Unlikely Likely Very Likely Unauthorised Access 0 4 8 9 Data Leakage 0 2 6 13 Service Disruption 0 3 6 12 Data Loss 0 3 8 10 Misuse of Information 0 1 13 7 User Interface and Experience (6 questions) Question 26: Which level of granularity should the security alerts have...
Sample 1
Question 21. Is there a minimum number of enrollments that would trigger the need for an institution to have a State’s approval to offer distance education in the State (a de minimus test)?
Sample 1
Question 21. Can you please confirm that by “expected outputs” (p.7 of the ToRs) you mean deliverables?
Sample 1

Related to Question 21

  • Challenge means to appeal a ruling of the Chair.

  • Proposal means the Technical Proposal and the Financial Proposal.

  • Complaint Investigation means an investigation of any complaint that has been made to a proper authority that is not covered by an abuse investigation.

  • Knowledge of the Buyer means, as to a particular matter, the actual knowledge, after reasonable inquiry, of the following persons at the Buyer: Xxxxx Xxxx, Xxxxx Xxxxxxx, Xxxxx Xxxxxxx, Xxxxxx Xxxxx, X.X. Xxxxxxx, and Xxxx Xxxxx.

  • Investigational Product means the Study Drug identified above and the control material, as further detailed in the Protocol;

  • Informed choice means that the consumer is presented with complete and unbiased information on his or her long-term care options, including, but not limited to, the benefits, shortcomings, and potential consequences of those options, upon which he or she can base his or her decision.

  • Initiating tribunal means the tribunal of a state or foreign country from which a petition or comparable pleading is forwarded or in which a petition or comparable pleading is filed for forwarding to another state or foreign country.

  • Background investigation means the investigation conducted by a licensee or applicant to support the determination of trustworthiness and reliability.

  • D&O Claim means any right or claim of any Person against one or more of the Directors and/or Officers howsoever arising on or before the D&O Bar Date, for which the Directors and/or Officers, or any of them, are by statute liable to pay in their capacity as Directors and/or Officers or which are secured by way of any one of the Directors’ Charges;

  • investigating authority means an authority that in terms of national legislation may investigate unlawful activities;

  • Outcome means a job/training or placement outcome after the Start Date; and a Participant has been in employment/training/placement and Off-Benefit each week; and there has been an either continuous or cumulative individual period of employment/training/placement (Outcome payment trigger point) as detailed in the Specification for each Participant Group].

  • Requesting Authority means the Authority making a request under this MoU.

  • notified body means a conformity assessment body designated in accordance with this Regulation;

  • Review means a financial or operational audit, investigation, inspection or other form of review requested or required by the LHIN under the terms of LHSIA or this Agreement, but does not include the annual audit of the HSP’s financial statements;

  • Knowledge of Buyer Means the actual knowledge of Xxxxxxx Xxxxxx.

  • EXPERIMENTAL OR INVESTIGATIONAL means any healthcare service that has progressed to limited human application, but has not been recognized as proven and effective in clinical medicine. See Experimental or Investigational Services in Section 3 for a more detailed description of the type of healthcare services we consider experimental or investigational.

  • Patent Right means: (a) an issued or granted patent, including any extension, supplemental protection certificate, registration, confirmation, reissue, reexamination, extension or renewal thereof; (b) a pending patent application, including any continuation, divisional, continuation-in-part, substitute or provisional application thereof; and (c) all counterparts or foreign equivalents of any of the foregoing issued by or filed in any country or other jurisdiction.

  • IDE means the Investigational Device Exemption application process by which the United States Food and Drug Administration exempts medical device companies from the Federal statute that prohibits an unapproved device from being shipped in interstate commerce.

  • Investigation Committee means the Investigation Committee appointed by the Board under Regulation 5 of these Regulations;

  • Indication means any disease or condition, or sign or symptom of a disease or condition.

  • Ballot proposition means a question, issue, or proposal that is submitted to voters

  • Reviewing Authority means the Alberta Securities Commission.

  • Infringement Claim means a third party claim alleging that the Equipment manufactured by Motorola or the Motorola Software directly infringes a United States patent or copyright.

  • Alternative Proposal has the meaning set forth in Section 6.2(b).

  • Valid Patent Claim means a claim of an issued and unexpired Patent which has not been disclaimed, revoked, held unenforceable or invalid by a decision of a court or other governmental agency of competent jurisdiction, unappealable or unappealed within the time allowed for appeal, and which has not been admitted to be invalid or unenforceable through reissue or disclaimer or otherwise.

  • Licensed Patent means Stanford's rights in U.S. Patent Application, Serial Number , filed , any foreign patent application corresponding thereto, and any divisional, continuation, or reexamination application, extension, and each patent that issues or reissues from any of these patent applications. Any claim of an unexpired Licensed Patent is presumed to be valid unless it has been held to be invalid by a final judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction from which no appeal can be or is taken. “Licensed Patent” excludes any continuation-in-part (CIP) patent application or patent.